2024 National FFA Parliamentary Procedure LDE & SAEP Accredited Parliamentarian Exam

Part I - Research Questions - USE Robert’s Rules of Order Newly Revised (RONR) to find the Section and Paragraph where the quote is located.  (Example: 10:1)

	1.	“Rights in regard to debate are not transferable.”

	2.	“The distinction should be noted between the assembly (that is, the body of people who assemble) and the meeting (which is the event of their being assembled to transact business).”

	3.	“A motion to go into executive session (9) is a question of the privileges of the assembly.”

	4.	“The correction of minutes (41:10) is an example of business that is normally handled by unanimous consent.”

	5.	“Frequently, when the matter is clearly not controversial, time may be saved by asking unanimous consent rather than by making a formal motion to suspend the rules.”

Part II - Multiple Choice - Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. RONR may NOT be used on this section.

____	6.	The chair’s response to a Parliamentary Inquiry:
a.	Is an opinion.	
b.	Must immediately follow the inquiry by the member.	
c.	Is a ruling.	
d.	Can be subject to an Appeal.	

____	7.	Which phrase below applies both to the presiding officer and to the station in the place where he/she presides?
a.	The president.	
b.	The podium.	
c.	The moderator.	
d.	The chair.	

____	8.	A main motion and postpone indefinitely are pending when the main motion is referred to a committee.  What happens to the motion to postpone indefinitely?
a.	It goes to the committee with the main motion.	
b.	The committee can consider the postpone indefinitely when it debates the main motion.	
c.	It is ignored and does not go to the committee with the main motion.	
d.	It is automatically adopted.  	

____	9.	What is the legal document that gives the name and object of a society and also other information as required by law?
a.	Parliamentary Authority	
b.	Constitution	
c.	Bylaws	
d.	Corporate Charter	

____	10.	During a regular FFA chapter meeting each member has what maximum rights of debate?
a.	To speak once on main motions and once on subsidiary motions.	
b.	To speak twice on main motions and once on subsidiary motions.	
c.	To speak once on any debatable motion during the meeting.	
d.	To speak twice on any debatable motion during the meeting.	

____	11.	Which of the following is NOT a Request or Inquiry?
a.	Withdraw a motion.	
b.	Object to the Consideration of a Question.	
c.	Request for Information.	
d.	Parliamentary Inquiry.	

____	12.	Which motion below allows the assembly to bring back a motion for additional consideration after it was disposed of?
a.	Amend.	
b.	Postpone Indefinitely.	
c.	Reconsider.	
d.	Previous Question.	

____	13.	The subsidiary motion to Amend can be:
a.	Referred to a committee.	
b.	Applied to any main motion or any motion with a variable factor.	
c.	Postponed indefinitely.	
d.	Laid on the table.	

____	14.	The purpose of the privileged motion to Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn is to establish a(an):
a.	Adjourned meeting.	
b.	Annual meeting.	
c.	Regular meeting.	
d.	Special meeting.	

____	15.	A Parliamentary Inquiry is a question to obtain information on a matter of parliamentary law directed to the:
a.	Recording Secretary.	
b.	Parliamentarians.	
c.	Advisor.	
d.	Chair.	

____	16.	An amendment to a primary amendment is called a:
a.	Conforming amendment	
b.	Secondary amendment.	
c.	Third degree amendment.	
d.	First degree amendment.	

____	17.	A chapter has a roll of 80 members and a quorum is present at a regular meeting. A total of 58 members vote on a motion to Extend the Limits of Debate. Assuming that there are no fractional votes, how many must vote in the affirmative for the motion to Extend the Limits of Debate to be adopted?
a.	30	
b.	36	
c.	39	
d.	41	

____	18.	A motion is dilatory if it:
a.	Is closely related to or has bearing on the subject.	
b.	Obstructs or thwarts the will of the assembly.	
c.	Is taken out of the normal sequence of order.	
d.	Suspends the rights of the minority to speak.	

____	19.	A.The term rules of order refers to the:
a.	Rules of parliamentary procedure.	
b.	Agenda.	
c.	Adopted bylaws.	
d.	General orders of business.	

____	20.	If it is desired to reconsider a vote on a primary amendment after the main motion to which it adhered has been disposed of:
a.	Only the vote on the amendment is reconsidered.	
b.	The amendment may not be reconsidered.	
c.	The vote on the main question must also be reconsidered.	
d.	The vote on the main question need not be reconsidered.	

____	21.	An assembly is a:
a.	Session of an executive board of a larger organization.	
b.	Special meeting of the members of an organization.	
c.	Body of people who come together as a group.	
d.	Series of meetings.	

____	22.	The chair’s ruling can be appealed:
a.	At any time.	
b.	At the time of the ruling.	
c.	After the motion to adjourn has been seconded.	
d.	Before the time of the ruling.	

____	23.	A main motion, an amendment, and a motion to commit are all pending. A member moves the Previous Question on all pending motions. When all the motions on which the Previous Question was ordered have been disposed of the Previous Question is said to be:
a.	Completed.	
b.	Adopted.	
c.	Exhausted.	
d.	Finished.	

____	24.	A single member has the power to require a:
a.	Roll call vote.	
b.	Ballot vote.	
c.	Counted vote.	
d.	Standing vote.	

____	25.	Which one of the following motions cannot be reconsidered?
a.	Postpone Definitely.	
b.	Suspend the Rules.	
c.	Main Motion.	
d.	Limit or Extend the Limits of Debate.	

____	26.	Which motion below is used to make a pending main motion an Order of the Day at the next meeting?
a.	Postpone Definitely.	
b.	Lay on the Table.	
c.	Amend.	
d.	Reconsider.	

____	27.	The minimum affirmative vote to adopt a standing rule at any business meeting is a:
a.	Two-thirds (2/3) with previous notice.	
b.	Two-thirds (2/3) without previous notice.	
c.	A majority without previous notice.	
d.	A majority and mandatory previous notice.	

____	28.	A general rule when wording a main motion is:
a.	To offer statements such as “I so move,” after informal consultation.	
b.	Not to propose a motion that the assembly refrain from doing something.	
c.	To include negative statements.	
d.	Never begin a motion with the words, “I move that...”	

____	29.	The initial vote on a main motion is usually taken “viva voce” which means by:
a.	Rising.	
b.	Show of hands.	
c.	Ballot.	
d.	Voice.	

____	30.	A motion to amend the Bylaws should require at least:
a.	Previous notice and a two-thirds (2/3) vote.	
b.	Two-thirds (2/3) vote.	
c.	A majority vote of the entire membership.	
d.	Two-thirds (2/3) of the entire membership.	

____	31.	An Object to the Consideration of a Question can only be raised:
a.	Before the result of the vote has been announced.	
b.	Before there has been any debate or subsidiary motion stated by the chair.	
c.	Before the vote has been taken on the main motion.	
d.	On an incidental main motion.	

____	32.	If a member votes in favor of an amendment and the amendment is adopted, when the vote is taken on the main motion the member:
a.	Is not obligated to vote in favor of the amended motion.	
b.	Is obligated to vote in favor of the amended motion.	
c.	May abstain but may not vote against the motion.	
d.	Should not vote on the main motion.	

____	33.	Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the privileged motion to Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn?
a.	It can be reconsidered.	
b.	It is out of order when another member has the floor.	
c.	It is amendable.	
d.	It sets the time when the present meeting will adjourn.	

____	34.	The largest number of votes cast for a motion or candidate when three or more choices are possible is called a:
a.	Plurality vote.	
b.	Majority vote.	
c.	Unanimous vote.	
d.	Two-thirds (2/3) vote.	

____	35.	When a secondary motion has been made and has been admitted by the chair as in order:
a.	It must be acted upon and disposed of before the main motion can be considered.	
b.	It should be voted on immediately without debate.	
c.	The main motion is then the immediate pending question.	
d.	Only secondary amendments may be applied to it.	

____	36.	Which of the following motions is NOT used to delay action on a question?
a.	Postpone Indefinitely.	
b.	Postpone to a Certain Time (Definitely).	
c.	Commit (Refer to Committee).	
d.	Lay on the Table.	

____	37.	The lowest ranking privileged motion is:
a.	Raise a Question of Privilege	
b.	Recess	
c.	Call for the Orders of the Day	
d.	Fix the Time to Which to Adjourn	

____	38.	A meeting of a deliberative assembly, or a portion of a meeting, at which the proceedings are secret is called a(an):
a.	Executive session.	
b.	Private meeting.	
c.	Special meeting.	
d.	Confidential session.	

____	39.	If the chair says, “Are you ready for the question,” it means the:
a.	Assembly has exhausted the limits of debate.	
b.	Members may debate the pending question.	
c.	Assembly seems they want to postpone indefinitely.	
d.	The maker of the motion must yield to any point of information asked as a question.	

____	40.	You are in a meeting at 7:00 pm. A main motion and an amendment are on the floor. Which of the following is not a privileged motion?
a.	I move to adjourn.	
b.	I rise to a question of privilege affecting the assembly.	
c.	I move we recess for 15 minutes.	
d.	I move to adjourn at 7:30 pm.	

____	41.	Which one of the following is not a subdivision of a “standard” order of business?
a.	Reading and Approval of Minutes.	
b.	Roll Call.	
c.	New Business.	
d.	Reports of Officers, Boards, and Standing Committees.	

____	42.	When a main motion is postponed while a motion to Amend is pending, the amendment is:
a.	Automatically adopted.	
b.	Lost.	
c.	Postponed with the main motion.	
d.	Tabled also.	

____	43.	If a motion to close debate in 10 minutes (Limit Debate) is adopted, it is then out of order to:
a.	Move to lay the motion on the table.	
b.	Move to refer the matter to a committee.	
c.	Move the previous question.	
d.	Raise a point of order.	

____	44.	A motion to recess that is made when no business is pending is a:
a.	Privileged motion.	
b.	Main motion.	
c.	Incidental motion.	
d.	Unclassified motion.	

____	45.	One of the rules concerning the subsidiary motion to Commit (or Refer) is that:
a.	Debate can extend only to the desirability of committing the main question.	
b.	It is in order when another member has the floor.	
c.	It doesn’t need to be seconded.	
d.	A two-thirds (2/3) vote is required for it to be adopted.	

____	46.	The call of a meeting is a:
a.	Notice of a special meeting.	
b.	Demand by the presiding officer for the meeting to begin.	
c.	Written notice of the time and place of the meeting which is mailed or distributed to members.	
d.	Verbal notice of the time and place of the meeting at least one year prior to the date of the meeting.	

____	47.	If all of the following motions are pending, which one would be voted on first?
a.	Refer to committee.	
b.	Adjourn.	
c.	An amendment to the refer to committee.	
d.	Postpone definitely.	

____	48.	Who has the duty to determine if a quorum is present before a meeting is called to order?
a.	Secretary.	
b.	Parliamentarian.	
c.	Presiding officer.	
d.	Vice President.	

____	49.	The Orders of the Day can be set aside by:
a.	Any member who objects.	
b.	A two-thirds (2/3) vote in the negative.	
c.	The chair if there is an important item being debated.	
d.	A motion to Reconsider.	

____	50.	If the chair is in doubt as to which member is entitled to the floor:
a.	It should automatically be assigned to the member who addressed the chair.	
b.	The parliamentarian should decide.	
c.	The assembly can decide by a vote.	
d.	All the officers should confer and make the decision.	

2024 National FFA Parliamentary Procedure LDE & SAEP Accredited Parliamentarian Exam
Answer Section

NUMERIC RESPONSE

	1.	ANS:	43:10

	2.	ANS:	1:3

	3.	ANS:	19:7

	4.	ANS:	4:61

	5.	ANS:	25:16

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	6.	ANS:	A	REF:	33:5

	7.	ANS:	D	REF:	3:7

	8.	ANS:	C	REF:	11:4

	9.	ANS:	D	REF:	2:5

	10.	ANS:	D	REF:	43:8 & 43:12		

	11.	ANS:	B	REF:	6:17(4)

	12.	ANS:	C	REF:	37:1

	13.	ANS:	B	REF:	12:7(2)

	14.	ANS:	A	REF:	22:1

	15.	ANS:	D	REF:	33:3

	16.	ANS:	B	REF:	12:12

	17.	ANS:	C	REF:	44:3

	18.	ANS:	B	REF:	39:1

	19.	ANS:	A	REF:	2:14

	20.	ANS:	C	REF:	37:30

	21.	ANS:	C	REF:	1:3, p. 2

	22.	ANS:	B	REF:	24:8

	23.	ANS:	C	REF:	16:11

	24.	ANS:	D	REF:	6:17(7)

	25.	ANS:	B	REF:	25:2(8)

	26.	ANS:	A	REF:	14:13

	27.	ANS:	C	REF:	2:23

	28.	ANS:	B	REF:	10:11

	29.	ANS:	D	REF:	4:35

	30.	ANS:	A	REF:	57:1(1)

	31.	ANS:	B	REF:	26:2(1)

	32.	ANS:	A	REF:	12:5

	33.	ANS:	D	REF:	22:1

	34.	ANS:	A	REF:	44:11

	35.	ANS:	A	REF:	5:5(2)

	36.	ANS:	A	REF:	11:1

	37.	ANS:	C	REF:	6:12(1)

	38.	ANS:	A	REF:	9:24

	39.	ANS:	B	REF:	4:15

	40.	ANS:	D	REF:	21:3(1)

	41.	ANS:	B	REF:	41:5

	42.	ANS:	C	REF:	14:18

	43.	ANS:	B	REF:	15:11

	44.	ANS:	B	REF:	20:3

	45.	ANS:	A	REF:	13:7(5)

	46.	ANS:	C	REF:	1:7

	47.	ANS:	B	REF:	t4

	48.	ANS:	C	REF:	40:11

	49.	ANS:	B	REF:	18:4(7)

	50.	ANS:	C	REF:	42:14